Aside many of the codified languages in the reading today, because many of them referred back to the law and technicality of Jacob, which can only be properly understood by knowing why those words are there, I think it’s intentionally used because the author and the audience has knowledge of his words, occurrences and happenings. I also think that, the totality of the reading isn’t primarily about physical adultery it’s a figure of speech for idolatry, again it traces back to the laws.